[Apr 15, 2025] FC0-U61 Test Prep Training Practice Exam Questions Practice Tests [Q58-Q81]

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[Apr 15, 2025] FC0-U61 Test Prep Training Practice Exam Questions Practice Tests

Exam Questions Answers Braindumps FC0-U61 Exam Dumps PDF Questions

CompTIA FC0-U61 exam is a vendor-neutral certification, which means that it is not tied to any specific technology or vendor. This makes it an ideal certification for individuals who want to gain a broad understanding of IT concepts and technologies. FC0-U61 exam is also recognized globally, which means that individuals who hold the certification can work in any country around the world.

QUESTION 58
A computer user is downloading software from the Internet and notices the following at the end of the install file: “…x86.exe”. Which of the following statements BEST represents what the “…x86.exe” means in the installation file?

x86 only supports an installation on a 32-bit CPU architecture.

x86 supports an installation on a 32-bit and a 64-bit CPU architecture.

x86 only supports an installation on a 64-bit CPU architecture.

x86 supports an installation on a 16-bit CPU architecture.

Explanation
x86 only supports an installation on a 32-bit CPU architecture is the statement that best represents what the
“…x86.exe” means in the installation file. x86 is a term that refers to a family of processors or instruction sets that use 32-bit registers and memory addresses. x86 processors can only run software applications that are compatible with the 32-bit architecture. An installation file that has the suffix “…x86.exe” indicates that the file is an executable file that can only be installed on a 32-bit system. A 64-bit system can run both 32-bit and
64-bit applications, but a 32-bit system can only run 32-bit applications. References : The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 34.

QUESTION 59
A network technician needs to ensure data on a network drive is fully backed up. Which of the following backups should the technician implement?

Database

Webserver

File

Operating system

A file backup is a type of backup that copies individual files or folders from a source to a destination. A file backup can be used to back up data on a network drive, as it allows the technician to select the specific files or folders that need to be backed up. A file backup can also be performed incrementally or differentially, which means that only the files that have changed since the last backup are copied, saving time and space. A file backup can be restored easily, as it does not require any special software or hardware to access the backed up files.
A database backup is a type of backup that copies the entire database or parts of it from a source to a destination. A database backup is used to back up data that is stored in a structured format, such as tables, records, and indexes. A database backup can be performed using the native tools of the database management system, such as SQL Server or Oracle, or using third-party software. A database backup can be restored using the same tools that performed the backup, and it may require some additional steps, such as restoring the transaction logs or applying the differential backups.
A webserver backup is a type of backup that copies the files and folders that are related to a webserver, such as HTML, CSS, JavaScript, PHP, images, and so on. A webserver backup is used to back up data that is used to host a website or a web application. A webserver backup can be performed using the file backup method, or using specialized software that can backup the webserver configuration, settings, and permissions. A webserver backup can be restored by copying the files and folders back to the webserver, or using the software that performed the backup.
An operating system backup is a type of backup that copies the entire operating system or parts of it from a source to a destination. An operating system backup is used to back up data that is essential for the functioning of the computer, such as the system files, the registry, the drivers, the applications, and the user settings. An operating system backup can be performed using the native tools of the operating system, such as Windows Backup or Time Machine, or using third-party software. An operating system backup can be restored by booting from a recovery media, such as a CD, DVD, or USB, or using the software that performed the backup.
References: Managing Backups – CompTIA A+ 220-1102, IT Fundamentals – CompTIA, Chapter 12 Compare and Contrast Storage Types – CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ (ITF+) Study Guide: Exam FC0-U61, Second Edition

QUESTION 60
Which of the following tasks is typically performed during the identification phase of the troubleshooting methodology?

QUESTION NO : users.

Verify functionality.

Divide and conquer.

Implement the solution.

users is a task that is typically performed during the identification phase of the troubleshooting methodology. QUESTION NO : users involves gathering information from the users who are experiencing the problem or who have reported the problem. This can help identify the symptoms, scope, frequency, and impact of the problem. Verify functionality, divide and conquer, and implement the solution are tasks that are typically performed in other phases of the troubleshooting methodology. Reference: CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Study Guide: Exam FC0-U61, Second Edition, Chapter 9: Troubleshooting Methodology, page 333.

QUESTION 61
Which of the following intellectual property concepts BEST represents a legally protected slogan of a business?

Contract

Patent

Trademark

QUESTION 62
A corporate network just implemented a 60-day password-warning banner. Which of the following is most likely going to happen in 60 days?

Password reset

Password expiration

Password reuse

Password Implementation

The most likely thing that will happen in 60 days after implementing a 60-day password-warning banner is password expiration. A password-warning banner is a message that appears on the screen when a user logs in to a system or network, informing them of how many days are left before their password expires. A password expiration policy is a security measure that requires users to change their passwords periodically, usually every 30 to 90 days. This policy helps to prevent unauthorized access or compromise of passwords by hackers or malicious insiders. Password reset is the process of changing or creating a new password for a user account when the user forgets their password or wants to change it for security reasons. Password reset can be done by the user themselves or by an administrator, depending on the system or network settings. Password reset does not necessarily happen in 60 days after implementing a 60-day password-warning banner, unless the user forgets their password or chooses to change it before it expires. Password reuse is the practice of using the same password for multiple user accounts or systems. Password reuse is not recommended as it increases the risk of compromise if one of the accounts or systems is breached by hackers or malicious insiders. Password reuse does not necessarily happen in 60 days after implementing a 60-day password-warning banner, unless the user chooses to use their old password for their new password after it expires. Password implementation is not a term used in security, but it may refer to the process of creating or enforcing password policies for user accounts or systems. Password implementation does not necessarily happen in 60 days after implementing a 60-day password-warning banner, unless there are changes in the password policies that require users to comply with them. Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Student Guide (Exam FC0-U61), Chapter 7: Security Concepts1

QUESTION 63
Which of the following is an example of PI I? (Select two).

Full name

Date of birth

Employment status

School attended

Social media username

City of residence

Personally Identifiable Information (PII) refers to data that can be used to identify, contact, or locate a single person, or to identify an individual in context. A full name and date of birth are classic examples of PII because they can directly identify a person. Other options listed may relate to a person’s life but do not specifically and directly identify an individual in most contexts.References: The definition and examples of PII are part of data privacy topics covered under the CompTIA IT Fundamentals, which discusses security measures and identification data types.

QUESTION 64
A developer is creating specific step-by-step instructions/procedures and conditional statements that will be used by a computer program to solve problems. Which of the following is being developed?

Algorithm

Software

Pseudocode

Flowchart

QUESTION 65
Which of the following is a value that uniquely identifies a database record?

Foreign key

Public key

Primary key

Private key

A primary key is a value that uniquely identifies a database record or a row in a table. A primary key can be a single column or a combination of columns that have unique values for each record. A primary key ensures that each record can be distinguished from others and prevents duplicate data. For example, in a database that stores information about employees, the employee ID column can be used as a primary key for each employee record56. References := CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals3; What is Primary Key? – Definition from Techopedia7

QUESTION 66
A building has two legacy APs. A new AP was recently installed within 30ft (9m) of the legacy APs. Multiple users have been reporting intermittent internet connectivity since the new AP was installed. Which of the following explains what is happening?

WEP is enabled.

There are inference and attenuation factors.

There are speed limitations.

The passwords are not synced.

The intermittent internet connectivity experienced by users since the installation of the new AP is likely due to interference and attenuation. When wireless access points are placed too closely together (in this case, within 30 feet), they can cause interference, especially if they are operating on overlapping channels. Attenuation refers to the weakening of wireless signals as they travel through obstacles or over distance.
A . WEP is enabled is related to security and is unlikely to cause connectivity issues.
C . There are speed limitations would cause slow performance, not intermittent connectivity.
D . The passwords are not synced would result in connectivity denial, not intermittent access.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ Certification Guide
Wireless Network Troubleshooting and Design Best Practices

QUESTION 67
Which of the following categories describes commands used to extract information from a database?

DDL

DDR

DLL

DML

DML stands for Data Manipulation Language, which is a category of commands used to extract information from a database, such as SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, and DELETE. These commands allow a programmer to query, modify, and delete data from tables and views in a database. DDL stands for Data Definition Language, which is a category of commands used to create and modify the structure of a database, such as CREATE, ALTER, and DROP. These commands allow a programmer to define tables, views, indexes, and other objects in a database. DDR stands for Data Recovery Language, which is not a standard category of commands in SQL (Structured Query Language), the most common language for interacting with databases. DLL stands for Dynamic Link Library, which is not related to databases at all. It is a file format that contains executable code and resources that can be used by multiple applications on Windows operating systems. References: CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide: Exam FC0-U61, Second Edition, Chapter 4: Software Development Concepts, page 142

QUESTION 68
Which of the following backup types is most likely to allow restoration of a fully bootable computer on new hardware?

File-level backups

Critical data backups

System backups

Database backups

QUESTION 69
Which of the following terms best describes the outcome of a text message that is encrypted from its original form?

Cipher

Vector

Plain

Algorithm

The outcome of a text message that is encrypted from its original form is best described as a cipher. A cipher is a text message that has been transformed into an unreadable or unintelligible form by using an encryption algorithm and a key. Encryption is the process of converting plain text into cipher text to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of the message. A vector is not a term used in encryption, but it may refer to a data structure that can store multiple values of the same data type in an ordered sequence. Plain is not a term used in encryption, but it may refer to the original or unencrypted form of a text message. An algorithm is not the outcome of encryption, but it is the method or procedure that is used to perform encryption or decryption. Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Student Guide (Exam FC0-U61), Chapter 7: Security Concepts1

QUESTION 70
Which of the following is most appropriate to list on a social media site about an employer?

Work email

Job title

Hire date

Customers served

Contract

A system usage agreement is a document that defines the rules and expectations for using a company’s IT resources, such as computers, networks, intranets, software, and data. A system usage agreement typically covers topics such as acceptable use, security, privacy, monitoring, ownership, and consequences of violations. A system usage agreement helps to protect the company’s assets, reputation, and legal compliance, as well as the users’ rights and responsibilities. Privacy expectations on a company intranet should be limited to what is stated in the system usage agreement, as the company has the right and the duty to monitor and control the intranet for business purposes. Users should not assume that their activities on the intranet are private or confidential, unless the system usage agreement explicitly guarantees such privacy. The other options, such as precedents, HR policy, and word of mouth, are not reliable or consistent sources of privacy expectations, as they may vary, change, or conflict with the system usage agreement or the law. Reference: CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Certification Guide, page 100; 10 Intranet Best Practices for a Successful Intranet in 2021, point 7.

QUESTION 71
Which of the following software license models allows a developer to modify the original code and release its own version of the application?

Proprietary software

Commercial software

Open source software

Cross-platform software

Explanation

QUESTION 72
A database administrator would like to create a visual diagram of the layout of a new relational database. Which of the following should the administrator use?

Flowchart schema

Physical schema

Logical schema

Table schema

A logical schema in database design is a visual diagram that represents the framework or structure of the database, without getting into the details of physical storage. It includes tables, views, and the relationships between them, and is used to conceptualize and plan the structure of the database at a high level. This makes it an essential tool for a database administrator when planning a new relational database, as it helps in understanding how data will be stored, linked, and accessed.

QUESTION 73
A developer needs to add a table to a database. Which of the following database activities should the user perform?

UPDATE

ALTER

CREATE

REPORT

The CREATE statement is used to add a new table to a database. The syntax of the CREATE statement is:
CREATE TABLE table_name ( column1 datatype, column2 datatype, column3 datatype, … ); References: CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Study Guide: Exam FC0-U61, Second Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals, page 194.

QUESTION 74
Which of the following storage types is MOST vulnerable to magnetic damage?

Flash

SSD

Optical

HDD

QUESTION 75
Employee information is stored in a database. Which of the following BEST describes where all of an employee’s information is stored?

Record

Report

Column

Procedure

A record is a collection of related fields or attributes that store information about a specific entity or object in a database. For example, an employee record would store information such as name, ID, department, salary, etc. A record would be the best description of where all of an employee’s information is stored in a database. A report is a formatted presentation of data from a database, not a storage unit. A column is a vertical arrangement of fields or attributes that store the same type of information for different records, not all of an employee’s information. A procedure is a set of instructions or commands that perform a specific task on a database, not a storage unit. Reference: CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Study Guide: Exam FC0-U61, Second Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals, page 193.

QUESTION 76
Which of the following should a technician do to fix stability issues on a workstation?

Install a malicious software analyzer.

Install a firewall.

Install browsing controls.

Install updates.

Installing updates is one of the best steps to address stability issues on a workstation. Updates often contain patches for known bugs, security vulnerabilities, and performance improvements that can significantly enhance system stability. Keeping both the operating system and applications up to date is a standard best practice in IT maintenance.
A . Install a malicious software analyzer is a security measure, not directly related to stability.
B . Install a firewall protects against external threats but does not resolve internal stability issues.
C . Install browsing controls manages web access but does not improve system stability.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Certification Study Guide
Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Documentation

QUESTION 77
A company purchased a software program. The EULA states that the software can be installed on as many computers as the company wants, but only four users can be using the software at any point in time. Which of the following types of licenses is this an example of?

Group license

Concurrent license

Subscription license

Open-source license

Explanation
A concurrent license is a type of software license that allows a software program to be installed on as many computers as the company wants, but only a limited number of users can use the software at the same time. A concurrent license is based on the number of simultaneous users rather than the number of installations. A concurrent license can help a company save money and resources by sharing the software among multiple users who do not need to use the software all the time. References : The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 211.

QUESTION 78
A computer technician is assigned a ticket to install a laptop for a new employee. Due to the arrangement of the workspace, the employee requests that the laptop be installed with the cover closed. Which of the following would be required to satisfy this request? (Choose two.)

Printer

Mouse

Webcam

External hard drive

Speakers

Display

QUESTION 79
A company wants to build an application that is available to employees without a client component because some employees do not connect to the corporate network in order to work. Which of the following network types would best deliver this application to all employees?

Local server-hosted

Cloud-hosted

Locally installed

LAN-hosted

QUESTION 80
Which of the following data types would be best for storing data representing a phone number?

String

Integer

Float

Char

Phone numbers, although made up of digits, are best stored as strings in most programming and database contexts. This is because phone numbers may contain leading zeros, separators (such as dashes or spaces), and international codes that are not used in calculations as numeric values would be. Storing phone numbers as strings preserves the exact formatting and data integrity.
Reference: Basic data type handling is a fundamental topic in IT education, as discussed in CompTIA IT Fundamentals and other programming foundational guides.

QUESTION 81
When a user types a web page name in an internet browser address field, this information is translated to an IP address behind the scenes. Which of the following is being used?

SMTP

DHCP

WPA

DNS

WEP

DNS (Domain Name System) is used when a user types a webpage name (like www.example.com) into a browser’s address field. DNS servers translate this domain name into the corresponding IP address so that the browser can load the appropriate website. This translation is essential for navigating the internet because web browsers communicate over IP addresses, not domain names.
Reference: DNS is a fundamental network service discussed in CompTIA IT Fundamentals, which emphasizes its role in resolving human-friendly domain names to machine-readable IP addresses.

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