Aug-2026 HP HPE6-A86 Actual Questions and 100% Cover Real Exam Questions [Q59-Q80]

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Aug-2026 HP HPE6-A86 Actual Questions and 100% Cover Real Exam Questions

HPE6-A86 Free Exam Questions and Answers PDF Updated on Aug-2026

QUESTION 59
Which customer use case would be ideal for an HPE Aruba Networking Central On-Premises deployment?

Customers who have server resources hosted by hyperscalers

Customers who need a management platform maintained as SaaS

Customers that do not allow cloud connectivity

Customers who need geographical redundancy for the management platform

The correct answer is C. Customers that do not allow cloud connectivity. HPE Aruba Networking Central On- Premises is intended for organizations that need Aruba Central-style management capabilities but cannot or do not want to place management data in the public cloud. Official HPE Aruba Networking Central On- Premises documentation describes it as a variant of HPE Aruba Networking Central that is deployed in the customer’s own environment, while the Validated Solution Guide states that Central On-Premises is appropriate when security requirements disallow Internet connectivity. This makes it suitable for organizations with strict regulatory, security, data sovereignty, or internal policy requirements that prevent cloud-managed network infrastructure. Option A is incorrect because using hyperscaler-hosted server resources does not, by itself, require Central On-Premises. Option B is incorrect because a SaaS-maintained management platform describes the cloud version of HPE Aruba Networking Central, not the on-premises deployment. Option D is not the best answer because geographical redundancy is not the primary use case described for choosing Central On-Premises.

QUESTION 60
When explaining the HPE Aruba Networking Virtual Switching features, which statement about VSX is true?

The configuration can vary between two and ten members.

The switch control plane operates independently.

The management plane is shared.

The switch member ID changes on members other than the primary.

In a VSX pair, each switch maintains its own independent control plane. This design avoids a single point of failure and allows both switches to continue operating and forwarding traffic even if the peer becomes unavailable.

QUESTION 61
Which statement describes static routing?

supports automatic failure throughout the entire network

unpredictable routing behavior

scalable to any size

suitable for basic L3 networks

Static routing is commonly used in simple or small Layer 3 environments where routes do not change frequently. It provides straightforward and predictable routing behavior without the complexity of dynamic routing protocols.

QUESTION 62
A Network Operator is reviewing the VLAN configuration on an AOS-CX switch.
show vlan
VLAN ID Name Status
– — —
1 DEFAULT_VLAN Active
10 Sales Active
20 Engineering Active
30 Marketing Active
What is the primary purpose of creating these separate VLANs?

To combine all departments into a single collision domain.

To create a single, large broadcast domain for easier management.

To segment the network into multiple, isolated broadcast domains.

To physically separate the departments onto different switches.

QUESTION 63
A network is being designed to support voice, video, and data. A Solutions Architect needs to explain to the customer why simply having a high-bandwidth network (e.g., 10 Gbps links) is not enough to guarantee high-quality voice and video calls.
Which statements accurately describe the significance of QoS in this high-bandwidth converged network? (Select all that apply.)

QoS is not needed because the high bandwidth prevents all forms of congestion.

Even on high-bandwidth links, microbursts of traffic can cause momentary congestion, leading to jitter and packet loss for real-time applications.

QoS ensures that even if the link is not fully saturated, delay-sensitive packets (like VoIP) are always processed and forwarded first by the switch.

QoS is primarily for low-bandwidth networks (less than 1 Gbps).

QoS allows the network to provide predictable and reliable service for critical applications, regardless of the other traffic on the network.

QUESTION 64
A customer requires a network upgrade to replace their existing core switches. The new solution must support
100G speeds to the aggregation layer, with the ability to scale to a 12U chassis.
Which HPE Aruba Networking CX switch model would you initially propose?

CX 6400

CX 10000

CX 9300

CX 8325

The correct answer is A. CX 6400. The requirement calls for a chassis-based core switch that can scale to a
12U chassis and support 100G speeds toward the aggregation layer. HPE Aruba Networking CX 6400 QuickSpecs identify the CX 6400 as a modular switch family and include the larger CX 6410 chassis option, which is a 10-slot chassis platform. HPE also lists CX 6400 40/100GbE QSFP28 line modules, which provide the required 100G connectivity. This makes CX 6400 the correct fit for a chassis solution that can scale to the requested physical size and provide 100G uplinks. The CX 10000, CX 9300, and CX 8325 are fixed-form- factor platforms, not modular chassis solutions, so they do not match the stated chassis requirement.
Therefore, the best initial proposal is the HPE Aruba Networking CX 6400.

QUESTION 65
On a switched infrastructure using Spanning Tree, what entity defines the best path for traffic in an HPE Aruba Networking CX environment?

Root bridge

Designated bridge

Alternative bridge

Common bridge

The correct answer is A. Root bridge. In a switched infrastructure using Spanning Tree Protocol, the root bridge is the central reference point for calculating the loop-free Layer 2 topology. HPE Aruba Networking AOS-CX documentation explains that device roles, such as root bridge or leaf node, should be planned by adjusting spanning tree instance priority. It also notes that the placement of root bridges is important in a Layer 2 network domain because deterministic root and secondary root bridges provide predictability and protection. Switches calculate their best path toward the root bridge based on spanning tree information such as bridge priority, path cost, and port roles. This calculation determines which ports forward and which ports block to prevent loops. Option B is incorrect because a designated bridge or designated port forwards traffic for a segment but does not define the overall topology reference point. Option C is incorrect because
“alternative bridge” is not the entity that defines best path selection. Option D is incorrect because “common bridge” is not the correct STP role.

QUESTION 66
What describes the use of the Network Analytics Engine?

automatically creates tech support diagnostics in the event of a failure

schedules automated backups of the switch config

automates root cause analytics

creates support events for the HPE Aruba Networking Support Portal

The Network Analytics Engine is designed to automate root cause analytics by continuously monitoring network state and behavior, allowing issues to be detected, analyzed, and correlated without manual intervention.

QUESTION 67
What describes the use of the Network Analytics Engine?

Automatically creates tech support diagnostics in the event of a failure

Creates support events for the HPE Aruba Networking Support Portal

Automates root cause analytics

Schedules automated backups of the switch configuration

QUESTION 68
When explaining the HPE Aruba Networking CX virtual switching fabric functionalities on a CX
6200F switch to a customer, which statement about VSF ports is true?

The port speed is set to 10,000-full state and MTU 9198.

The port is removed from the switch’s data plane.

The port becomes a routed port.

The port becomes a member of the ISL LAG.

In a VSF configuration, the VSF ports on a CX 6200F switch are aggregated into an Inter-Switch Link (ISL) LAG, allowing them to carry traffic between stack members and appear as a single logical switch.

QUESTION 69
The customer requires the highest speed available using a single-port link between an HPE Aruba Networking CX 6200 and an HPE Aruba Networking CX 8100 over a distance of 3 meters, or 9 feet.
Which is the correct validated connectivity option for a single port?

10G-DAC

100G-DAC

25G-LR

50G-DAC

The correct answer is A. 10G-DAC. The limiting device in this connection is the CX 6200. HPE Aruba Networking CX 6200 models use built-in high-speed uplinks, and the CX 6200 product listings identify models with 4SFP+ uplinks. SFP+ uplinks support 10G, not 25G, 50G, or 100G single-port connectivity. HPE Aruba Networking transceiver guidance also notes that CX 6200 switches support split-side SFP connections only in available 10G-capable SFP ports, and that 50G transceivers can only be used in ports capable of 50G speeds, such as SFP56-capable ports. Therefore, even though the CX 8100 supports higher-speed connectivity options, the shared validated single-port option between the two switch families is 10G over DAC for a short
3-meter connection. Option B is incorrect because the CX 6200 does not have 100G ports. Option C is incorrect because 25G-LR is not the best validated 3-meter option and exceeds the CX 6200 SFP+ port capability. Option D is incorrect because 50G-DAC requires 50G-capable ports.

QUESTION 70
Suppose that a router has learned about network 172.18.37.0/24 from three sources ?OSPF, Internal BGP, and a static route.
Which statement is true about this router’s path selection?

The router chooses the OSPF route, because it is trusted more than BGP.

The router chooses the best path based on the lowest cost.

The router chooses the option with the highest administrative distance.

The router chooses the static route.

QUESTION 71
A switch port connected to an end-user workstation should never receive Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs). Which feature helps protect the network if a switch is accidentally connected to that port?

BPDU Protection

Link Aggregation

DHCP Relay

Loopback Detection

BPDU Protection disables a port when BPDUs are received on ports expected to connect only to end devices. This prevents unauthorized switches from participating in spanning tree calculations and reduces the risk of accidental Layer 2 topology disruptions.

QUESTION 72
A Support Technician is explaining the physical differences between an access layer switch like the Aruba CX 6200F and a data center switch like the Aruba CX 8325. What is a typical hardware differentiator of a data center switch?

They primarily feature 10/100/1000Base-T copper ports for user connectivity.

They often have a “front-to-back” or “back-to-front” airflow design for optimized cooling in server racks.

They come in a small, fanless design for silent operation in office environments.

They have fixed, non-modular hardware to reduce cost.

QUESTION 73
What are the default AOS-CX user groups? (Select three)

Manager

Administrator

Visitor

Operator

Guest

Auditor

QUESTION 74
A four-member CX 6200F VSF configuration is being planned to replace the current 5412R switch. The customer has an open-source network management solution and requires an answer to how they can monitor the switch stack.

The SNMP service must be enabled on mgmt VRF for each VSF member for queries.

The SNMP service on the Conductor switch will respond to all SNMP queries for the stack.

The SNMP service will be enabled by default for each members OOBM port for queries.

The SNMP service will respond to queries and stack them on both Conductor and Standby members.

In a VSF stack, the switches operate as a single logical device for management. SNMP queries are handled through the active control-plane switch, so the Conductor responds on behalf of the entire stack, allowing the monitoring system to poll the stack as one device.

QUESTION 75
You are checking the interface details for a workstation experiencing connectivity issues. Based on the output, which statement about the interface is true?

VLAN 90 is 802.1Q tagged.

Jumbo frames are supported.

Input errors have occurred.

PoE has been disabled.

The correct answer is C. Input errors have occurred. The interface output shows CRC/FCS errors with a value of 1254 under the RX column. CRC/FCS errors are receive-side frame check errors, so they indicate that the switch has received corrupted frames on this interface. HPE Aruba Networking AOS-CX show interface documentation lists interface statistics including packets, bytes, dropped frames, pause frames, errors, CRC
/FCS, collisions, runts, and giants, which confirms that CRC/FCS is part of the interface error statistics.
Option A is incorrect because the output says VLAN Mode: access and Access VLAN: 90; an access VLAN is untagged toward the endpoint, not an 802.1Q tagged trunk VLAN. Option B is incorrect because the MTU is shown as 1500, and the Jumbos counter is 0, so the output does not indicate jumbo-frame use. Option D is incorrect because the shown output does not state that PoE is disabled. The key troubleshooting clue is the nonzero receive CRC/FCS counter. ( arubanetworking.hpe.com )

QUESTION 76
Given IP address 172.20.3.54 and a mask of 255.255.255.0, what can be accurately stated about this addressing? (Select three)

The host portion of the address is .3.54

The network portion of the address is 172.20.3

Host 172.20.3.89 would be on the same network

A switch might use this address to forward the packet

You could also indicate this mask as “/24”

QUESTION 77
You are testing a Captive Portal for wired guest access and are seeing the self-signed certificate warning below.

Which statement is true?

A public CA signed certificate should be deployed.

HTTPS should be disabled, and HTTP should be used instead.

The self-signed CA should be imported into the trust store.

An enterprise CA signed certificate should be deployed.

The correct answer is A. A public CA signed certificate should be deployed. The browser warning appears because the captive portal is presenting a self-signed certificate that the client device does not trust. For guest access, client devices are usually unmanaged and cannot be expected to already trust an internal or self-signed certificate authority. HPE Aruba Networking documentation for captive portal deployments recommends that production environments obtain and install a certificate issued for the site or domain by a well-known Certificate Authority. This avoids browser trust warnings and gives guest users confidence that they are connecting to the correct portal. Option B is incorrect because disabling HTTPS and using HTTP would reduce security and expose portal traffic. Option C may work only for managed devices where the self-signed or private CA can be pushed into the trust store, but that is not practical for open wired guest access. Option D can be valid for internal managed users, but for guests, a public trusted CA certificate is the best answer.

QUESTION 78
Your colleague is installing a new HPE Aruba Networking CX 8100 switch in a data center in the default configuration. You monitor the peer switch port 1/1/1 status, connected with a 10Gb 3m DAC cable to the new switch, and validate that the cable is attached. The port remains down.
What should you suggest your colleague do so the port can come online?

Request to move the DAC cable to another port on the CX 8100 switch.

Request to issue command: no shutdown on the port the DAC cable is connected to.

Request to issue command: switching enable on the port the DAC cable is connected to.

Request to swap the DAC cable between the switches for correct Tx/Rx alignment.

The correct answer is B. Request to issue the command no shutdown on the port the DAC cable is connected to. On HPE Aruba Networking CX 8100 and similar data center switch platforms, interfaces are Layer 3 and disabled by default. HPE Aruba Networking AOS-CX IP Services documentation states that, by default, all interfaces on these platforms are Layer 3 and disabled, and its examples explicitly enable the interface with no shutdown. Therefore, even if a supported 10Gb DAC cable is physically attached and the peer switch port is monitored, the link will remain down until the CX 8100 interface is administratively enabled. Option A is not the best answer because the symptom is not that the DAC is in the wrong port; the default shutdown state explains the link-down condition. Option C is incorrect because switching enable is not the AOS-CX command used to bring the port online. Option D is incorrect because DAC cables do not require manual Tx
/Rx polarity swapping like separate fiber strands might. ( arubanetworking.hpe.com )

QUESTION 79
A CX 6200 VSF stack is the Layer 3 gateway for a mid-sized company. Users are divided into three different subnets on VLANs 100, 200, and 300. VLAN 50 contains a management network for access points, switches, and DHCP servers.
How do the access points get an IP address using DHCP?

As a response to the anycast DHCP query.

As a response to the unicast DHCP query.

As a response to the multicast DHCP query.

As a response to the broadcast DHCP query.

The correct answer is D. As a response to the broadcast DHCP query. DHCP clients initially do not have an IP address, so they commonly use broadcast DHCP discovery/request traffic to locate a DHCP server on the local network. HPE Aruba Networking documentation for DHCP relay explains that when a DHCP client broadcasts a request, the DHCP relay agent on the switch receives the packets and forwards them to the DHCP server as unicast requests. In this scenario, the access points are in VLAN 50, and VLAN 50 also contains DHCP servers. Because the DHCP server is on the same local management VLAN as the APs, the APs can obtain addresses through the normal DHCP broadcast process within that VLAN. Anycast and multicast are not used for the basic DHCP address request in this scenario. A unicast DHCP relay message can occur between a relay agent and a DHCP server when the server is on another subnet, but the client-side DHCP discovery begins as broadcast traffic.

QUESTION 80
A Network Operator has just finished configuring a new access switch, including setting up several VLANs, a LAG uplink to the core, and enabling RSTP. Before putting the switch into production, the operator needs to perform a final validation to ensure the key Layer 2 features are active and correctly configured.
The operator needs to answer the following questions:
* Is RSTP running?
* What is the Bridge ID of this switch?
* What is the Root Bridge ID?
* What are the roles and states of the ports in the Spanning Tree topology?
Which of the following commands should the Network Operator use to get all this information in a single output?

`show vlan`

`show lacp interfaces`

`show spanning-tree`

`show lldp neighbor-info`

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