Released CompTIA CS0-003 Updated Questions PDF [Q367-Q386]

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Released CompTIA CS0-003 Updated Questions PDF

CS0-003 Dumps and Practice Test (622 Exam Questions)

The CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification exam is designed to test a candidate’s ability to perform cybersecurity analysis and respond to threats. It is a comprehensive exam that evaluates a candidate’s knowledge of cybersecurity concepts, tools, and techniques. CS0-003 exam is composed of multiple-choice questions and performance-based questions. CS0-003 exam is computer-based and can be taken at any Pearson VUE testing center.

The CS0-003 certification exam measures a candidate’s ability to identify and analyze cybersecurity threats, vulnerabilities, and risks, and to design and implement effective security solutions that can protect computer systems and networks against cyber attacks. CS0-003 exam covers a range of topics such as threat detection, incident response, security analytics, and vulnerability management.

NO.367 A security administrator has found indications of dictionary attacks against the company’s external- facing portal. Which of the following should be implemented to best mitigate the password attacks?

Multifactor authentication

비밀번호 복잡성

Web application firewall

Lockout policy

Dictionary attacks involve an attacker attempting to guess passwords by using a list of common passwords. Implementing a lockout policy is effective because it limits the number of login attempts, thereby hindering the attacker’s ability to repeatedly attempt different passwords.
Lockout policies are standard in cybersecurity practices to prevent brute-force and dictionary attacks by temporarily disabling an account after a certain number of failed login attempts.

NO.368 An employee accessed a website that caused a device to become infected with invasive malware. The incident response analyst has:
* created the initial evidence log.
* disabled the wireless adapter on the device.
* interviewed the employee, who was unable to identify the website that was accessed
* reviewed the web proxy traffic logs.
Which of the following should the analyst do to remediate the infected device?

Update the system firmware and reimage the hardware.

Install an additional malware scanner that will send email alerts to the analyst.

Configure the system to use a proxy server for Internet access.

Delete the user profile and restore data from backup.

설명
Updating the system firmware and reimaging the hardware is the best action to perform to remediate the infected device, as it helps to ensure that the device is restored to a clean and secure state and that any traces of malware are removed. Firmware is a type of software that controls the low-level functions of a hardware device, such as a motherboard, hard drive, or network card. Firmware can be updated or flashed to fix bugs, improve performance, or enhance security. Reimaging is a process of erasing and restoring the data on a storage device, such as a hard drive or a solid state drive, using an image file that contains a copy of the operating system, applications, settings, and files. Reimaging can help to recover from system failures, data corruption, or malware infections. Updating the system firmware and reimaging the hardware can help to remediate the infected device by removing any malicious code or configuration changes that may have been made by the malware, as well as restoring any missing or damaged files or settings that may have been affected by the malware. This can help to prevent further damage, data loss, or compromise of the device or the network. The other actions are not as effective or appropriate as updating the system firmware and reimaging the hardware, as they do not address the root cause of the infection or ensure that the device is fully cleaned and secured. Installing an additional malware scanner that will send email alerts to the analyst may help to detect and remove some types of malware, but it may not be able to catch all malware variants or remove them completely. It may also create conflicts or performance issues with other security tools or systems on the device. Configuring the system to use a proxy server for Internet access may help to filter or monitor some types of malicious traffic or requests, but it may not prevent or remove malware that has already infected the device or that uses other methods of communication or propagation. Deleting the user profile and restoring data from backup may help to recover some data or settings that may have been affected by the malware, but it may not remove malware that has infected other parts of the system or that has persisted on the device.

NO.369 After conducting a cybersecurity risk assessment for a new software request, a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) decided the risk score would be too high. The CISO refused the software request. Which of the following risk management principles did the CISO select?

Avoid

Transfer

수락

Mitigate

Avoid is a risk management principle that describes the decision or action of not engaging in an activity or accepting a risk that is deemed too high or unacceptable. Avoiding a risk can eliminate the possibility or impact of the risk, as well as the need for any further risk management actions. In this case, the CISO decided the risk score would be too high and refused the software request. This indicates that the CISO selected the avoid principle for risk management.

NO.370 Which of the following is a nation-state actor least likely to be concerned with?

Detection by MITRE ATT&CK framework.

Detection or prevention of reconnaissance activities.

Examination of its actions and objectives.

Forensic analysis for legal action of the actions taken

A nation-state actor is a group or individual that conducts cyberattacks on behalf of a government or a political entity. They are usually motivated by national interests, such as espionage, sabotage, or influence operations. They are often highly skilled, resourced, and persistent, and they operate with the protection or support of their state sponsors. Therefore, they are less likely to be concerned with the forensic analysis for legal action of their actions, as they are unlikely to face prosecution or extradition in their own country or by international law. They are more likely to be concerned with the detection by the MITRE ATT&CK framework, which is a knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations.
The MITRE ATT&CK framework can help defenders identify, prevent, and respond to cyberattacks by nation-state actors. They are also likely to be concerned with the detection or prevention of reconnaissance activities, which are the preliminary steps of cyberattacks that involve gathering information about the target, such as vulnerabilities, network topology, or user credentials. Reconnaissance activities can expose the presence, intent, and capabilities of the attackers, and allow defenders to take countermeasures. Finally, they are likely to be concerned with the examination of their actions and objectives, which can reveal their motives, strategies, and goals, and help defenders understand their threat profile and attribution.
참조:
* 1: MITRE ATT&CK
* 2: What is the MITRE ATT&CK Framework? | IBM
* 3: MITRE ATT&CK | MITRE
* 4: Cyber Forensics Explained: Reasons, Phases & Challenges of Cyber Forensics | Splunk
* 5: Digital Forensics: How to Identify the Cause of a Cyber Attack – G2

NO.371 A web application team notifies a SOC analyst that there are thousands of HTTP/404 events on the public-facing web server. Which of the following is the next step for the analyst to take?

Instruct the firewall engineer that a rule needs to be added to block this external server

Escalate the event to an incident and notify the SOC manager of the activity

Notify the incident response team that there is a DDoS attack occurring

Identify the IP/hostname for the requests and look at the related activity

NO.372 A security analyst is reviewing events that occurred during a possible compromise. The analyst obtains the following log:

Which of the following is most likely occurring, based on the events in the log?

An adversary is attempting to find the shortest path of compromise.

An adversary is performing a vulnerability scan.

An adversary is escalating privileges.

An adversary is performing a password stuffing attack..

Based on the events in the log, the most likely occurrence is that an adversary is performing a vulnerability scan. The log shows LDAP read operations and EDR enumerating local groups, which are indicative of an adversary scanning the system to find vulnerabilities or sensitive information. The final entry shows SMB connection attempts to multiple hosts from a single host, which could be a sign of network discovery or lateral movement. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 161; Monitor logs from vulnerability scanners, Section: Reports on Nessus vulnerability data.

NO.373 A recent vulnerability scan resulted in an abnormally large number of critical and high findings that require patching. The SLA requires that the findings be remediated within a specific amount of time. Which of the following is the best approach to ensure all vulnerabilities are patched in accordance with the SLA?

Integrate an IT service delivery ticketing system to track remediation and closure

Create a compensating control item until the system can be fully patched

Accept the risk and decommission current assets as end of life

Request an exception and manually patch each system

NO.374 A company is deploying new vulnerability scanning software to assess its systems. The current network is highly segmented, and the networking team wants to minimize the number of unique firewall rules. Which of the following scanning techniques would be most efficient to achieve the objective?

Deploy agents on all systems to perform the scans.

Deploy a central scanner and perform non-credentialed scans.

Deploy a cloud-based scanner and perform a network scan.

Deploy a scanner sensor on every segment and perform credentialed scans.

USB ports are a common attack vector that can be used to deliver malware, steal data, or compromise systems. The first step to mitigate this vulnerability is to check the configurations of the company assets and disable or restrict the USB ports if possible. This will prevent unauthorized devices from being connected and reduce the attack surface. The other options are also important, but they are not the first priority in this scenario.
참조:
CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, page 247
What are Attack Vectors: Definition & Vulnerabilities, section “How to secure attack vectors” Are there any attack vectors for a printer connected through USB in a Windows environment?, answer by user “schroeder”

NO.375 An analyst is conducting monitoring against an authorized team that win perform adversarial techniques. The analyst interacts with the team twice per day to set the stage for the techniques to be used. Which of the following teams is the analyst a member of?

Orange team

Blue team

Red team

Purple team

An orange team is a team that is involved in facilitation and training of other teams in cybersecurity. An orange team assists the yellow team, which is the management or leadership team that oversees the cybersecurity strategy and governance of an organization. An orange team helps the yellow team to understand the cybersecurity risks and challenges, as well as the roles and responsibilities of other teams, such as the red, blue, and purple teams. In this scenario, the analyst is conducting monitoring against an authorized team that will perform adversarial techniques. This means that the analyst is observing and evaluating the performance of another team that is simulating real-world attacks against the organization’s systems or networks. This could be either a red team or a purple team, depending on whether they are working independently or collaboratively with the defensive team. The analyst interacts with the team twice per day to set the stage for the techniques to be used. This means that the analyst is providing guidance and feedback to the team on how to conduct their testing and what techniques to use. This could also involve setting up scenarios, objectives, rules of engagement, and success criteria for the testing. This implies that the analyst is facilitating and training the team to improve their skills and capabilities in cybersecurity. Therefore, based on these descriptions, the analyst is a member of an orange team, which is involved in facilitation and training of other teams in cybersecurity.

NO.376 An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:

Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?

Set an HttpOnlvflaq to force communication by HTTPS

Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header

Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains

Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header

The output shows that the web application is vulnerable to clickjacking attacks, which allow an attacker to overlay a hidden frame on top of a legitimate page and trick users into clicking on malicious links. Blocking requests without an X-Frame-Options header can prevent this attack by instructing the browser to not display the page within a frame.

NO.377 Which of the following evidence collection methods is most likely to be acceptable in court cases?

Copying all access files at the time of the incident

Creating a file-level archive of all files

Providing a full system backup inventory

Providing a bit-level image of the hard drive

NO.378 An analyst reviews the following web server log entries:
%2E%2E/%2E%2E/%2ES2E/%2E%2E/%2E%2E/%2E%2E/etc/passwd
No attacks or malicious attempts have been discovered. Which of the following most likely describes what took place?

A SQL injection query took place to gather information from a sensitive file.

A PHP injection was leveraged to ensure that the sensitive file could be accessed.

Base64 was used to prevent the IPS from detecting the fully encoded string.

Directory traversal was performed to obtain a sensitive file for further reconnaissance.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Directory traversal, also known as path traversal, is an attack that allows attackers to access restricted directories and execute commands outside the web server’s root directory. The %2E encoding corresponds to a dot (.) in ASCII, and %2E%2E resolves to ../. The log entries indicate attempts to navigate directories upward to access sensitive files like /etc/passwd. Since no malicious activity was flagged, it is inferred this was either an unsuccessful or reconnaissance attempt.
참조:
CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide (Chapter 3: Malicious Activity, Page 79)
CompTIA CySA+ Objectives (Domain 1.2 – Indicators of Potentially Malicious Activity)

NO.379 An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:

Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?

Set an HttpOnlvflaq to force communication by HTTPS

Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header

Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains

Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header

NO.380 A penetration tester is conducting a test on an organization’s software development website. The penetration tester sends the following request to the web interface:

Which of the following exploits is most likely being attempted?

SQL 주입

Local file inclusion

교차 사이트 스크립팅

Directory traversal

SQL injection is a type of attack that injects malicious SQL statements into a web application’s input fields or parameters, in order to manipulate or access the underlying database. The request shown in the image contains an SQL injection attempt, as indicated by the “UNION SELECT” statement, which is used to combine the results of two or more queries. The attacker is trying to extract information from the database by appending the malicious query to the original one

NO.381 A security analyst needs to mitigate a known, exploited vulnerability related not tack vector that embeds software through the USB interface. Which of the following should the analyst do first?

Conduct security awareness training on the risks of using unknown and unencrypted USBs.

Write a removable media policy that explains that USBs cannot be connected to a company asset.

Check configurations to determine whether USB ports are enabled on company assets.

Review logs to see whether this exploitable vulnerability has already impacted the company.

USB ports are a common attack vector that can be used to deliver malware, steal data, or compromise systems.
The first step to mitigate this vulnerability is to check the configurations of the company assets and disable or restrict the USB ports if possible. This will prevent unauthorized devices from being connected and reduce the attack surface. The other options are also important, but they are not the first priority in this scenario.
참조:
* CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, page 247
* What are Attack Vectors: Definition & Vulnerabilities, section “How to secure attack vectors”
* Are there any attack vectors for a printer connected through USB in a Windows environment?, answer by user “schroeder”

NO.382 Which of the following is a circumstance in which a security operations manager would most likely consider using automation?

The generation of NIDS rules based on received STIX messages

The fulfillment of privileged access requests to enterprise domain controllers

The verification of employee identities prior to initial PKI enrollment

The analysis of suspected malware binaries captured by an email gateway

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Automating the generation of NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System) rules based on Structured Threat Information eXpression (STIX) messages is a practical use of automation in security operations.
* Option B (Privileged access requests) should involve human oversight due to the high risk of unauthorized access.
* Option C (PKI identity verification) requires manual document verification and human approval.
* Option D (Malware analysis) often requires sandboxing and behavioral analysis, which benefit from human expertise.
Thus, A is the correct answer, as automating threat intelligence ingestion and rule creation enhances efficiency in intrusion detection.

NO.383 A security analyst is trying to identify anomalies on the network routing. Which of the following functions can the analyst use on a shell script to achieve the objective most accurately?

function x() { info=$(geoiplookup $1) && echo “$1 | $info” }

function x() { info=$(ping -c 1 $1 | awk -F “/” ‘END{print $5}’) && echo “$1 | $info” }

function x() { info=$(dig $(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F “.in-addr” ‘{print $1}
‘).origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short) && echo “$1 | $info” }

function x() { info=$(traceroute -m 40 $1 | awk ‘END{print $1}’) && echo “$1 | $info” }

The function that can be used on a shell script to identify anomalies on the network routing most accurately is:
function x() { info=(dig(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F “.in-addr” ‘{print $1}
‘).origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short) && echo “$1 | $info” }
This function takes an IP address as an argument and performs two DNS lookups using the dig command. The first lookup uses the -x option to perform a reverse DNS lookup and get the hostname associated with the IP address. The second lookup uses the origin.asn.cymru.com domain to get the autonomous system number (ASN) and other information related to the IP address. The function then prints the IP address and the ASN information, which can help identify any routing anomalies or inconsistencies.

NO.384 Which of the following best describes the threat concept in which an organization works to ensure that all network users only open attachments from known sources?

Unintentional insider threat

Nation-state threat

Advanced persistent threat

Hacktivist threat

An unintentional insider threat is a type of network security threat that occurs when a legitimate user of the network unknowingly exposes the network to malicious activity, such as opening a phishing email or a malware-infected attachment from an unknown source. This can compromise the network security and allow attackers to access sensitive data or systems. The other options are not related to the threat concept of ensuring that all network users only open attachments from known sources.
ReferencesCompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 1: Threat and Vulnerability Management, page 13.What is Network Security | Threats, Best Practices | Imperva, Network Security Threats and Attacks, Phishing section.Five Ways to Defend Against Network Security Threats, 2. Use Firewalls section.

NO.385 A user downloads software that contains malware onto a computer that eventually infects numerous other systems. Which of the following has the user become?

Hacklivist

Advanced persistent threat

Insider threat

Script kiddie

설명
The user has become an insider threat by downloading software that contains malware onto a computer that eventually infects numerous other systems. An insider threat is a person or entity that has legitimate access to an organization’s systems, networks, or resources and uses that access to cause harm or damage to the organization. An insider threat can be intentional or unintentional, malicious or negligent, and can result from various actions or behaviors, such as downloading unauthorized software, violating security policies, stealing data, sabotaging systems, or collaborating with external attackers.

NO.386 Which of the following features is a key component of Zero Trust architecture?

Single strong source of user identity

Implementation of IT governance

Business continuity plan

품질 보증

Internal auditing process

A key component of Zero Trust architecture is having a strong and centralized source of user identity to ensure strict authentication and authorization. Zero Trust operates on the principle of
“never trust, always verify,” where access to resources is continuously evaluated based on the user’s identity, role, and context, regardless of whether the user is inside or outside the network.

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